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The Lord’s Day

George Orwell said,

Sometimes the first duty of intelligent men is the restatement of the obvious.

I’m not claiming intelligence, but I do think some restatement of the obvious regarding the Lord’s day is an eternally and spiritually intelligent thing to do.

Even the phrase itself, the Lord’s day is instructive. It isn’t just Sunday or the first day of the calendar week or the last day of your weekend. In fact it’s not your day at all. It is the Lord’s day. The name is biblical, and though only found in one verse, it is an inspired designation. The apostle John wrote in Revelation 1:10,

I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet.

John was isolated on the island of Patmos; exiled as punishment for preaching the gospel. As he began to write the Revelation of the end times he tells us when he received this vision: on the Lord’s day.

This is the only verse that uses this exact phrase. And after reading it in English I had a question, because I was familiar with a similar phrase found plenty of places in the Old and New Testaments referring to “the day of the Lord.” I’ve read my Bible enough and taken enough theology classes to know that “the day of the Lord” denotes a coming, eschatological day of judgment, when the Lord comes back and pours out His wrath on those nations and peoples who rejected Him.

And if you know anything about translation you know that there are numerous ways to indicate possession. You can say “the desk of Bob” or “Bob’s desk.” Both constructions show that the desk is owned by Bob. In English we typically show possession by adding apostrophe “s” but in highly inflected languages (like Greek) possession is expressed by this genitive phrasing.

So I wondered if it was same phrase, and if so, why every other time in Scripture we read “the day of the Lord” but here in Revelation 1:10 it was translated “the Lord’s day.” There are at least a couple reasons for the difference. The first is word order.

In most of the references to the day of the Lord, “Lord” comes after “day” in the typical genitive construction.

ἡ ἡμέρα τοῦ κυρίου
the day of the Lord

But in Revelation 1:10, the word for “Lord” comes between the article and the noun. This is the first attributive position and is the principal way to accentuate or highlight the adjective more than the noun. The emphasis is on Lord’s.

τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ
the Lord’s day

But word order is not the biggest reason why Revelation 1:10 is different. The biggest reason is because it isn’t even the same word. The word in Revelation 1:10 is a form of κυριακός. While in the same family of words as the noun, κύριος, meaning Lord, this is an adjective that doesn’t refer to the person, it distinctly describes what belongs to the person.

The word κυριακός is not a Bible-only word. It was used frequently in secular Greek writings in imperial, official language: “concerning the emperor” or “belonging to the emperor,” often referring to the emperor’s accounts and what was rightfully owned and due to his position. John applies the word to a particular day as “belonging to the Lord; the Lord’s.” Like anything owned by the King, this day is set apart for, specially possessed by, and distinctive of the Lord. It is not my day or your day or even the church’s day; it is the Lord’s day.

There is only one other place that κυριακός is used to describe something else owned by the Lord. In 1 Corinthians 11:20 Paul refers to “the Lord’s supper” and totally transforms ordinary food and common meals into something that is distinct, special, and set apart. Paul admonished the Corinthians that they were treating His table with disrespect and therefore treating Him with disregard.

So κυριακός is an imperial, royal, kingly word, and His day is not something for us to treat with indifference. Matthew Henry wrote,

The name shows how this sacred day should be observed; the Lord’s day should be wholly devoted to the lord, and none of its hours employed in a sensual, worldly manner, or in amusements. … Those who would enjoy communion with God on the Lord’s day, must seek to draw their thoughts and affections from earthly things.

We are so far away from Sunday’s like this. We do not treat the day like it’s His. It’s our day, and we may share a few hours with Him if we don’t have something better to do. Instead, we should restate the obvious and remember and rehearse that it is the Lord’s day.

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8 Comments

  1. Trinian
    Posted September 19, 2007 at 12:19 pm | Permalink

    Woo-hoo, a free Greek lesson!!

    Now, since this is such a specific, special day that has been apart by God and for God - how would you respond to people who would say that our own choice of Sunday is arbitrary and not at all in keeping with the historical (trans: Jewish) God-given designation for the weekly holy time?

  2. Posted September 19, 2007 at 3:30 pm | Permalink

    Thank you for sharing this Sean. It’s great to see how the language works. I learned something new. Also, I think it’s great to be reminded of the importance of this privilege (celebrating the Lord’s day).

  3. Posted September 20, 2007 at 9:16 am | Permalink

    Clyde, I’m glad it was helpful.

    Trinian, I hope to post the next piece of the puzzle regarding the Lord’s day as the first day of the week later today or tomorrow here on the void. But for the rough draft (and the audio) you can drop by here.

  4. Trinian
    Posted September 20, 2007 at 11:25 am | Permalink

    Oooo, it’s all eviden-tial-ly…

  5. Rich
    Posted September 28, 2007 at 12:40 pm | Permalink

    The Lord’s Day” - Are we talking about the LORD,GOD or are we talking about the Lord Jesus? Isaih 42:8 states, “I am the LORD: that is my name…”

    Who instituted Sunday as the day of worship? If I’m correct, the Nicean Council, at the direction of the Roman Emperor Constantine, Changed the day of worship from the seventh day to the first day. Pope John Paul II stated that the Catholic Church made the change because they have the authority to do so. The scripture states that God rested on the seventh day. It also says that he blessed, hollowed, sactified and set aside the seventh day and it would be a sign forever that in six he created the Heavens and the Earth and rested on the seventh day.

    It seems so obvious as to what day God’s Sabbath is. Even the farmers rotate their land so that each piece is farmed for six years and is rested on the seventh year. God works in completeness and the number seven represents just that…..completion!

  6. Posted September 28, 2007 at 2:26 pm | Permalink

    Rich,

    Thanks for stopping by the Void. Your comments don’t really seem that inquisitive, rather your attitude appears more immovable and insistent. But it is entirely possible that I misread your responses and that you actually do want some answers, so here are a few thoughts.

    You ask,

    Are we talking about the LORD,GOD or are we talking about the Lord Jesus?

    I’m not sure exactly what you’re asking. Are you saying there is a difference or do you think they are the same? The Old Testament words “LORD” (Yahweh) and “Lord” (Adonai) are both translated in Greek with Kurios, the title given to the Lord Jesus over and over again in the New Testament. In other words, the LORD God, and Jesus, are the same Lord. Most importantly, the context of Revelation 1:10 where the apostle John refers to the “Lord’s day” clearly connects the “Lord’s” with Jesus Christ who he mentioned twice in verse 9.

    You also suggest that corporate worship was changed to Sunday in the late third century. But while the Nicean Council, Constantine, and Popes may have corroborated Sunday as the Lord’s day, they certainly did not originate it. Christians began gathering on the first day of the week in the New Testament, well before any church councils or government law.

    You also said,

    (God) set aside the seventh day and it would be a sign forever that in six he created the Heavens and the Earth and rested on the seventh day.

    In addition, on The First Day post, you stated,

    No man has the authority to establish anything that will directly conflict with God’s word and if God’s says that something is forever, then he means just that….forever!

    So are you also observing the Feast of Unleavened Bread as a statute forever (Exodus 12:17)? Are you burning pure oil of pressed olives in a lampstand as a statute forever (Exo. 28:20-21)? Or wearing the appropriate priestly garments as a statute forever (Exo. 28:43)? Are you keeping peace offerings as a statue forever (Leviticus 3:17)? These are just a few examples, but they are enough to make me wonder if you realize what other obligations you must also accept.

    You stated,

    The Sabbath was kept all throughout the Bible.

    Did Adam and Eve keep the Sabbath? Or what about Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob? Though God rested from His work on the seventh day, and while the Sabbath law was modeled after the creation week, God did not institute the Sabbath as law until Moses (Exodus 20:8-11). Then I agree with you, from Exodus through Acts we see Jews keeping (or at least required to keep) the Sabbath. But where are the examples of Sabbath keeping after Acts? Is there any place where Gentiles are called to observe the Sabbath after the resurrection of Christ?

    It is also significant that the Sabbath is nowhere referred to as “the Lord’s day” in the Old Testament, and even most modern seventh-day Sabbatarians do not refer to Saturday as the Lord’s day. And as I wrote, in the New Testament, Jesus, nor any of the apostles, require Sabbath keeping. Instead, post-resurrection Sunday the practice was to meet on Sunday.

    In fact, the apostle Paul warns in Colossians 2:16-17:

    Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath. These are a shadow of the things to come, but the substance belongs to Christ. (emphasis added)

    God Himself distinguishes the Sabbath as part of a shadow of the substance in Christ. So while I agree with you that “No man has the authority to establish anything that will directly conflict with God’s word,” we’re not looking to man for the basis of the church’s corporate worship on Sunday instead of Saturday.

  7. Trinian
    Posted September 29, 2007 at 7:23 am | Permalink

    I know the First Council of Nicea dealt specifically with the date of Easter - I don’t recall anything having to do with The Lord’s Day. If you have a source for that, I’d like to see it, just for curiosity’s sake.
    In any case, beyond all the overwhelming evidence that our host has provided, it would be foolish to discard anything and everything coming out of Nicea as pure evil just out of protestant habit - after all, wasn’t its primary focus on Arianism? Hmm, or is that what you meant by “Are we talking about the LORD,GOD or are we talking about the Lord Jesus?” If so, we have a much larger problem to deal with than the organization of weekly activities.

  8. Posted November 27, 2007 at 2:59 pm | Permalink

    To make this phrase refer to a day of the week is an example of semantic anachronism. It also violates the construction wherein we see John introducing the phrase with “in the Spirit.” Every other time he introduces a phrase with “in the Spirit” it is to explain how it was even possible for him to be revealing what followed. He hardly needed to be “in the Spirit” to convince his audience what day of the week it was. Keep working. And read my book. Total Eclipse: Christ Returns, A Commentary on The Revelation of Jesus Christ. Steve

2 Trackbacks

  1. […] One: The Lord’s DayPart Two: The First DayPart Three: Caveats and ClarificationPart Four: The Best […]

  2. […] One: The Lord’s DayPart Two: The First DayPart Three: Caveats and ClarificationPart Four: The Best […]

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